Question 3

SCQHARD

A conducting square loop initially lies in the XZXZ plane with its lower edge hinged along the XX-axis. Only in the region y0y \ge 0, there is a time dependent magnetic field pointing along the ZZ-direction, B(t)=B0(cosωt)k^\vec{B}(t) = B_0(\cos \omega t)\hat{k}, where B0B_0 is a constant. The magnetic field is zero everywhere else. At time t=0t = 0, the loop starts rotating with constant angular speed ω\omega about the XX axis in the clockwise direction as viewed from the +X+X axis (as shown in the figure). Ignoring self-inductance of the loop and gravity, which of the following plots correctly represents the induced e.m.f. (VV) in the loop as a function of time:

Question
(A)
Option A
(B)
Option B
(C)
Option C
(D)
Option D

Detailed Solution

The magnetic field is B(t)=B0cos(ωt)k^\vec{B}(t) = B_0 \cos(\omega t) \hat{k} only for y0y \ge 0. The loop rotates about the XX-axis with angular speed ω\omega. At time tt, the angle of rotation is θ=ωt\theta = \omega t.

  1. For 0tπ/ω0 \le t \le \pi/\omega, the loop is in the y0y \ge 0 region. The area vector is A=L2(sinωtj^+cosωtk^)\vec{A} = L^2(\sin \omega t \hat{j} + \cos \omega t \hat{k}).
  2. The magnetic flux is Φ=BA=(B0cosωtk^)(L2cosωtk^)=B0L2cos2ωt\Phi = \vec{B} \cdot \vec{A} = (B_0 \cos \omega t \hat{k}) \cdot (L^2 \cos \omega t \hat{k}) = B_0 L^2 \cos^2 \omega t.
  3. Induced e.m.f. V=dΦdt=B0L2ddt(cos2ωt)=B0L2(2cosωt)(ωsinωt)=B0L2ωsin(2ωt)V = -\frac{d\Phi}{dt} = -B_0 L^2 \frac{d}{dt}(\cos^2 \omega t) = -B_0 L^2 (2 \cos \omega t)(-\omega \sin \omega t) = B_0 L^2 \omega \sin(2\omega t). This corresponds to one full sine cycle from t=0t=0 to t=π/ωt=\pi/\omega.
  4. For π/ω<t<2π/ω\pi/\omega < t < 2\pi/\omega, the loop is in the y<0y < 0 region where B=0\vec{B} = 0, thus Φ=0\Phi = 0 and V=0V = 0. This matches the graph in option (A).
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